Why Not the Name Jesus?
Emails & Questions
Why Not Jesus?
Q: Why don't you think the name Jesus is as good as any name for our God? Isn't it what is in the heart of Love that counts? Besides, the bibles all use the name Jesus so how are you right and they are all wrong?
A: The answer is simple; the name, JESUS, did not exist until around 400 years ago, about 1,500 after our Savior was named a name by His Heavenly Father. So, that name, JESUS, could not be His Name. That is the first fact. And, we might add, the name being use before that, in most of the English speaking contries, was the Latin form, IESVS -- still, no where near His Birth Name, a Name we still have and has been in existence before our Lord's birth, a Name found among men, a name that existed some 113-1,400 years before His Birth and another 1,900 years after His birth.
Next, the New Testament record -- The Gospels and the Acts of the Apostles -- specifically state that He, our Savior, came in the Father's Name. This makes sense, considering that Fathers name their children after themselves, even among men. And in the Book of Acts, the first ever Christian Sermon, by the Apostle Peter (Chepas) says that there is no other name by which we must be saved.
(John 5:43) I have come in my Father's Name, and you do not accept me; but if someone else comes in his own name, you will accept him. NIV, KJV, EVS -- the vast majority of MS agree
(John 1:12) But as many as received Him, to them gave He power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on His Name: (The small word, on, can also be translated, in -- them that believe in His Name)
(Act 4:12) Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.
Simply put, there is not other Name -- whereby we must be saved. Not maybe, but must be saved. What other interpretation is there? None, it says what it says, and this is the first Gospel Sermon after our Savior, YaHshua's death and resurrection. It is not like His Name has been lost, as some suppose and others teach. No, His Name has existed and can be found among the people of this planet for over the past 3,000 years, give or take. A book in the Hebrew Bible even carries that Name as a title, the Book of Joshua. The J letter was pronounced differently a few hundred years back, but not in every language and country. Many of the Northern European countries have retained the older and more correct pronunciation for the J letter. For example; John is pronounced as, Yawn, or even, Yahn. There are many other examples, but you should have the fun of looking those up for yourself.
It all comes down to this question, the real question: Why did the translators, old and new, middle ages and modern times, use a different name, when they had His Birth Name all along? I am not going to answer that question. You have to answer that for yourself.
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